Warning: Some posts on this platform may contain adult material intended for mature audiences only. Viewer discretion is advised. By clicking ‘Continue’, you confirm that you are 18 years or older and consent to viewing explicit content.
“um actually” I guess to properly apply the pythagoras theorem here, you’d need to consider the magnitude of the lengths of each of these vectors in complex space, both of which are 1 (for the magnitude of a complex number you ironically can use pythag, with the real and imaginary coefficients of each complex number.
So for 1 you get mag(1+0i)=root(1^2 + 0^2)
and for i you get mag(0+1i)=root(0^2 + 1^2)
Then using pythag on the magnitudes, you get hypotenuse = root(1^2 + 1^2) = root 2, as expected
“um actually” I guess to properly apply the pythagoras theorem here, you’d need to consider the magnitude of the lengths of each of these vectors in complex space, both of which are 1 (for the magnitude of a complex number you ironically can use pythag, with the real and imaginary coefficients of each complex number.
So for 1 you get mag(1+0i)=root(1^2 + 0^2) and for i you get mag(0+1i)=root(0^2 + 1^2)
Then using pythag on the magnitudes, you get hypotenuse = root(1^2 + 1^2) = root 2, as expected
Shit I meant uhh imaginary number go brr it zero