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billions of dollars of handouts we’ve been giving them for decades
Yep, which underlines why this works, it has congressional approval. The entire point (and a requirement for) those funds is to spend them in the US defense sector.
Is there a reason why Biden can bypass congress to sell arms to Israel but not Ukraine?
edit: thanks for the answers
Sell is the keyword there.
Israel bought weapons.
Ukraine CAN buy weapons
Biden cannot gift weapons without congress approval
Yeah… israel bought weapons with the billions of dollars of handouts we’ve been giving them for decades.
Yep, which underlines why this works, it has congressional approval. The entire point (and a requirement for) those funds is to spend them in the US defense sector.
I’m not saying it doesn’t work.
I’m highlighting how we’re still giving Israel weapons because they’re buying them with money we gave to Israel.
Perhaps if we gave more aid to Ukraine than we gave to Israel, they would be in a better position to buy weapons.
selling arms versus giving them the arms, for starters.
I’ve been wondering about this as well. My guess is there’s already standing legislation specific to Israel that enumerates such powers.