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What’s arguably even more fucked up is that the basic assumption the story relies on is that the audience is intended to see Lot’s choice not as a betrayal towards his daughters, but as a personal sacrifice in giving up his property. This was considered to be so obvious to the people of its time that it goes unstated.
What’s arguably even more fucked up is that the basic assumption the story relies on is that the audience is intended to see Lot’s choice not as a betrayal towards his daughters, but as a personal sacrifice in giving up his property. This was considered to be so obvious to the people of its time that it goes unstated.
If it isn’t stated how do you know it was the author’s intention?