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It matters because if “true christian” population is correlated with self reported christian population, which it should be, then self reported christian population should also be inversely correlated with drug addicition.
Maybe, but I’m not sure why that matters. The essence of our dispute here is over whether salvation works reliably for kicking a drug addiction.
It matters because if “true christian” population is correlated with self reported christian population, which it should be, then self reported christian population should also be inversely correlated with drug addicition.
To break it down a little further:
(n) “christians” = (n * x) true christians
(n) “christians” = inverse (drug addicition)
Therefore:
Does that make sense?
Yes, that does make sense. If the two are really uncorrelated, then it would appear some people are lying about their faith.