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I would argue conservatives voters are more likely to answer the polls calls as they want to “send a message”
Historically this very incorrect, and most of the Conservatives I know don’t trust the polls even if the CPC is ahead and so have no desire to participate.
So do you have anything to actually back that statement up, or is it just a feeling?
Historically this very incorrect, and most of the Conservatives I know don’t trust the polls even if the CPC is ahead and so have no desire to participate.
So do you have anything to actually back that statement up, or is it just a feeling?